Section 1.2 Iterated integrals and Fubini's theorem
As we saw in Example 1.1.8, computing double integrals directly using the limit definition (Definition 1.1.3) is rather onerous. Fubini's theorem provides us a more convenient means of integrating using iterated integrals.
Definition 1.2.1. Doubly iterated integral over rectangle.
Let \(f\) be defined on the rectangle \(R=[a,b]\times [c,d]\) and suppose the single-variable functions
are integrable on \([a,b]\) and \([c,d]\text{,}\) respectively. We define the two iterated integrals \(\int_a^b\int_c^d f(x,y)\, dx\, dy\) and \(\int_c^d\int_a^bf(x,y)\, dx\, dy\) as follows:
Theorem 1.2.2. Fubini's theorem over rectangles.
If \(f\) is continuous on the rectangle \(R=[a,b]\times [c,d]\text{,}\) then the functions
are integrable on \([a,b]\) and \([c,d]\text{,}\) respectively, and we have
Remark 1.2.3.
Observe that Fubini's theorem tells us two interesting facts: (1) the two iterated integrals are equal in value, and (2) in fact both are equal to the double integral of \(f\) over \(R\text{.}\)Remark 1.2.4.
Along similar lines, Fubini's theorem gives us two potential ways of computing an integral: integrate first with respect to \(x\text{,}\) and then with respect to \(y\text{;}\) or integrate first with respect to \(y\text{,}\) and then with respect to \(x\text{.}\) Oftentimes one of these choices will lead to easier integration techniques than the other. Choose wisely!
Example 1.2.5. Volume below graph revisited.
Let \(f(x,y)=x+y^2\text{,}\) and let \(\mathcal{S}\) be the region lying above the rectangle \(R=[0,1]\times[0,1]\) and below the graph of \(f\text{.}\) Compute \(\operatorname{vol} \mathcal{S}\) using Fubini's theorem.
We have
Phew, this is indeed the same answer we got in Example 1.1.8! For kicks try the other choice of iterated integral:
Example 1.2.6. Fubini examples.
Compute the following integrals using Fubini's theorem.
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\(\iint\limits_R x\cos(xy)\, dA\text{,}\) \(R=[1,2]\times [0,\pi]\)
Solution.By Fubini's theorem we have
\begin{align*} \iint\limits_R x\cos(xy)\, dA \amp=\int_1^2\int_0^\pi x\cos(xy)\, dy\, dx \\ \amp=\int_1^2(\sin(xy))\Bigr\vert_{y=0}^{y=\pi}\, dx\\ \amp = \int_1^2 \sin\pi x \\ \amp = -\frac{1}{\pi}\cos\pi x\Bigr\vert_1^2\\ \amp = -\frac{1}{\pi}(\cos 2\pi-\cos\pi)\\ \amp =-\frac{2}{\pi}\text{.} \end{align*}Note that if we integrated with respect to \(x\) first we would have needed to use integration by parts.
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\(\iint\limits_R \frac{x}{1+xy}\, dA\text{,}\) \(R=[0,1]\times [1,2]\)
Solution.By Fubini's theorem we have
\begin{align*} \iint\limits_R \frac{x}{1+xy}\, dA \amp=\int_0^1\int_1^2 \frac{x}{1+xy}\, dy\, dx \\ \amp=\int_0^1\ln(1+xy)\Bigr\vert_1^2 dx\\ \amp = \int_0^1 \ln(1+2x)-\ln(1+x)\, dx \\ \amp = \left(\frac{1}{2}((1+2x)\ln(1+2x)-(1+2x))-((1+x)\ln(1+x)-(1+x))\right)\Bigr\vert_0^1 \\ \amp = \frac{3}{2}\ln 3-2\ln 2\text{.} \end{align*}The penultimate equality uses the indefinite integral formula \(\int \ln u\, du=u\ln u-u\text{.}\) See what happens when you first integrate with respect to \(x\text{.}\)