To verify the \(n=1\) case, we begin compute \(f'(w_0)\) using the limit definition for \(w_0\in U\text{.}\) Pick an open ball \(B_r(w_0)\) containing \(w_0\) satisfying \(\overline{B}_r(w_0)\subseteq U\text{,}\) and let \(\gamma=w_0+re^{it}\text{.}\) We have
\begin{align*}
f'(w_0) \amp = \lim\limits_{w\to w_0}\frac{f(w)-f(w_0)}{w-w_0} \\
\amp =\lim\limits_{w\to w_0}\frac{\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_\gamma f(z)/(z-w)\, dz-\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_\gamma f(z)/(z-w_0)\, dz}{w-w_0}\\
\amp =\frac{1}{2\pi}\lim\limits_{w\to w_0}\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)(w-w_0)}{(w-w_0)(z-w)(z-w_0)}\, dz\\
\amp =\frac{1}{2\pi}\lim\limits_{w\to w_0}\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)}\, dz\text{.}
\end{align*}
The second equality above uses
Theorem 1.15.2 for both
\(f(w)\) and
\(f(w_0)\text{.}\) Note that for all
\(w\) sufficiently close to
\(w_0\text{,}\) we have
\(w\in B_r(w_0)\text{,}\) justifying the use of the formula for
\(f(w)\) in the limit.
We are sorely tempted to continue our computation as follows:
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{2\pi}\lim\limits_{w\to w_0}\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)}\, dz\amp \stackrel{?}{=}\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_\gamma\lim\limits_{w\to w_0} \frac{f(z)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)}\, dz \\
\amp =\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_\gamma\frac{f(z)}{(z-w_0)^2}\, dz\text{.}
\end{align*}
However, as indicated by the \(\stackrel{?}{=}\) it is not clear whether we are justified in swapping the order of the limit and integral operations. It turns out that we are indeed justified in doing so, but the explanation pivots on the somewhat technical notion of uniform convergence. We will define that notion rigorously when we discuss power series. For now we sidestep this obstacle by showing directly that
\begin{equation*}
\lim\limits_{w\to w_0}\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)}\, dz= \int_\gamma\frac{f(z)}{(z-w_0)^2}\, dz
\end{equation*}
using the definition of the limit. More precisely, we will show that
\begin{equation*}
\abs{\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)}\, dz-\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-w_0)^2}\, dz} = \abs{\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)(w-w_0)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)^2}\, dz}
\end{equation*}
approaches zero as \(w\to w_0\text{.}\) To that end, recall that \(\gamma=w_0+re^{it}\text{.}\) It follows that \(\abs{z-w_0}=r\) and \(\abs{z-w}=\abs{(z-w_0)+(w_0-w)}\geq \abs{r-\abs{w-w_0}}\text{.}\) Furthermore, since \(g(t)=\abs{f(\gamma(t))}\) is a continuous real-valued function on \([0,2\pi]\text{,}\) the extreme value theorem implies that there is an \(M\) such that \(\abs{f(z)}\leq M\) for all \(z=\gamma(t)\text{.}\) We conclude, using the \(ML\)-inequality, that
\begin{align*}
\abs{\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)(w-w_0)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)^2}\, dz} \amp = \abs{w-w_0}\abs{\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)^2}\, dz}\\
\amp \leq \abs{w-w_0}2\pi r \frac{M}{(r-\abs{w-w_0})r^2}\text{.}
\end{align*}
Since \(r\) and \(M\) are fixed constants, we see that
\begin{equation*}
\lim\limits_{w\to w_0}\abs{w-w_0}2\pi r \frac{M}{(r-\abs{w-w_0})r^2}=0\text{,}
\end{equation*}
and hence that
\begin{equation*}
\lim\limits_{w\to w_0} \abs{\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-w)(z-w_0)}\, dz-\int_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-w_0)^2}\, dz} =0\text{,}
\end{equation*}
as desired. This proves the result for \(n=1\text{.}\)