To get this problem into a state where we can apply the IVT, we rewrite the equation as
\begin{equation*}
\cos x-\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+4}}=0
\end{equation*}
and define
\(f(x)=\cos x-\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+4}}\text{.}\) Thus we are looking for a solution to
\(f(x)=0\text{.}\) As with
Example 7.6, this will boil down to finding inputs where
\(f\) is positive and negative, respectively. Let’s create a table of values for
\(f\text{:}\)
\begin{equation*}
\begin{array}{r|l}
x\amp f(x)\\
\hline
-\pi/2 \amp 0-\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi^2/4+4}}=-\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi^2/4+4}}\\
0 \amp 1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{4}}=\frac{1}{2}\\
\pi/2 \amp -\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi^2/4+4}}
\end{array}\text{.}
\end{equation*}
We observe that
\begin{equation*}
-\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi^2/4+4}}=f(-\pi/2)< 0< f(0)=\frac{1}{2} \text{.}
\end{equation*}
Since \(f\) is continuous on \([-\pi/2, 0]\text{,}\) the IVT now implies there is an element \(c\in (\pi/2, 0)\) satisfying \(f(c)=0\text{.}\) Thus we have shown, not only that there is a solution, but one lying in this particular interval.
Note that the same reasoning tells us there is another solution between \(0\) and \(\pi/2\text{.}\) That is the inequality
\begin{equation*}
f(0)> 0 > f(\pi/2)
\end{equation*}
implies there is another solution \(d\) lying between \(0\) and \(\pi/2\text{.}\) Thus, we are able to roughly locate two solutions to the original equation, using the IVT twice.
Note: since the given function happens to be even (\(f(-x)=f(x)\)), from our first solution \(c\) lying in \((-\pi/2, 0)\) we obtain a second solution \(-c\) lying in \((0,\pi/2)\text{.}\)